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  Previous year Environment and Ecology questions (PYQ) Prelims

Group "A" officers are appointed to various services by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), which serves as the primary recruiting organization.

 Previous year Environment and Ecology questions (PYQ) Prelims

Group "A" officers are appointed to various services by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), which serves as the primary recruiting organization. 

 

The competitive exam is divided into two phases that go in succession: 

 

• The Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination, an objective test used to choose candidates for the Main Examination; and
• The Civil Services (Main) Examination (written and interview) is held to select candidates for the various services and posts.

 

The General Studies Paper-I and General Studies Paper-II (CSAT) are objective-type (MCQ-based) papers that are part of the UPSC Preliminary Examination, the first phase of the exam. To be eligible, you must receive a Paper II score of at least 33%. In Paper I, each correctly answered question is worth two marks, and each incorrectly answered question is worth 0.66 marks, or one-third of a mark. Contrarily, in Paper II, each correct response is worth 2.5 marks, while each incorrect response is worth 0.83 (or 2.5) points less. Both papers must be completed in two hours and turned in on the same day.  

The Preliminary Examination is only intended to be a screening test, and a candidate's final rank or level of service will not be determined by how well they perform on the exam.  

The likelihood of passing this stage is significantly skewed because approximately twelve to thirteen times as many applicants qualify for the main examination as there are openings to fill each year. A candidate must complete the Preliminary Examination to be admitted to the Main examination for that year.  

 

The General category's cut-off scores from previous years are listed below.  

UPSC Prelims Cut-off Marks over the Years (2015-2022) 

Year	Cut-off Marks for General category	Percentage
2015	107.34/200	53.67%
2016	116/200	58%
2017	105.34/200	52.67%
2018	98/200	49%
2019	98/200	49%
2020	92.51/200	46.61%
2021	87.54/200	43.77%
2022	95/200 (expected)	47.5%

 

A format of objective evaluation is used during the preliminary exam. A wide range of subjects, including history, geography, politics, economics, etc., are covered in the questions. 

The following list contains the syllabus for Paper I of the preliminary examination.

• Biogeochemical Cycles

• Types of Ecosystems

• Population Ecology

• Biodiversity Conservation

• Pollution & Degradation

• Waste Management

• Environmental Impact Assessment of Sustainable Practices

• Transport, communication and trade
• Disaster Management
• Asia
• Africa
• Europe
• South America and North America
• Australia and Antarctica
• Basics of Ecology and Environment
• Major Biomes
• Environment Issues and Pollution
• Environmental conservation
• Climate Change
• Biogeography of India
• Agriculture
• Crops and Cropping Pattern
• Mineral Resources
• Industries

To ace the exam, you must study each subject and topic listed on the syllabus. When preparing for Paper-I, it is crucial to finish questions from previous years to comprehend the range of questions asked and predict the questions that might be asked the following year 

There are many questions in the ancient history section of the syllabus. The questions about the environment and ecology listed below were created after carefully examining the UPSC examinations from 2015 through 2022. 

TRENDS AND STRATEGY OF ANCIENT HISTOR 

Most questions about environment and ecology are typically found in the sections on Biodiversity Conservation, Crops and Cropping Pattern, and Biogeochemical Cycles. The crucial topics are Types of Ecosystems, Major Biomes, Pollution & Degradation, and Climate Change. 

Consult the NCERTs for a thorough understanding of the discipline's core concepts. Everyone should also understand the nation's environmental concerns. To supplement the knowledge acquired from NCERTs, current events should be kept up to date, and regular newspaper reading should be done. Readers can also consult publications like the Hindu, the Explained section of the Indian Express, and articles from websites like The Mint and the Hindu Business line to understand contemporary art and culture news.   

 YEAR-WISE QUESTIONS (2022-2015)

2022 

1. Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?

(a) Cotton

(b) Rice

(c) Sugarcane

(d) Wheat

Answer: (b)

2. Consider the following pairs:

      Wetland/Lake:                      Location

1. Hokera Wetland                    Punjab
2. Renuka Wetland                   Himachal Pradesh
3. Rudrasagar Lake                  Tripura
4. Sasthamkotta                        Tamil Nadu

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

Answer: (b) 

3.“Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:

(a) Database created by coalition of research organisations

(b) Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”

(c) Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”

(d) Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank

Answer: (a) 

4. Consider the following statements:

1. The Climate Group is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. 
2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100”.
3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals.
4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. 
5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition”. 

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

(a) 1,2, 4 and 5 

(b) 1,3 and 4 only 

(c) 2,3 and 5 only

(d) 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 

Answer: (b) 

5. “If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.” Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?

(a) The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.

(b) Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.

(c) 58 15 Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.

(d) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.

Answer: (d) 

6. In the Guidelines, statements: context of WHO consider the Air Quality following

1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 ug/m³ and annual mean of PM 2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³.
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 2 only

Answer: (b)

7. With reference to “Gucchi” sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is a fungus.
2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas.
3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 2

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

8. With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements:

1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.
2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.
4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 4

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 

9. Which of the following is not a bird?

(a) Golden Mahseer

(b) Indian Nightjar

(c) Spoonbill

(d) White Ibis

Answer: (a) 

10. Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants?

1. Alfalfa
2. Amaranth
3. Chickpea
4. Clover
5. Purslane (Kulfa)
6. Spinach

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only

(c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only

(d) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6

Answer: (a) 

11. “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations?

(a) Restoration of damaged coral reefs

(b) Development of building materials using plant residues

(c) Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas

(d) Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas

Answer: (a) 

12. The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the:

(a) Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas

(d). Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces

(c) Development of gardens genetically modified flora using

(d) Creation of mini forests in urban areas

Answer: (c) 

13. Consider the following statements:

1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organisation.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

14. Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 ? 

(a) Central Water Commission

(b) Central Ground Water Board

(c) Central Ground Water Authority

(d) National Water Development Agency

Answer: (c) 

15. Which one of the following statements best describes the ‘Polar Code’?

(a) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.

(b) It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region. 

(c) It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.

(d) It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.

Answer: (a)

16. Which one of the following best describes the term “greenwashing”?

(a) Conveying a false impression that a company’s products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound

(b) Non-inclusion of ecological/ environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country

(c) Ignoring the consequences disastrous ecological while infrastructure development undertaking

(d) Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme

Answer: (a) 

 

17. With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements:

1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer: (a)

18. Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of

fungi?

(a) Ant

(b) Cockroach

(c) Crab 

(d) Spider

Answer: (a)

19. Consider the following:

1. Carbon monoxide
2. Nitrogen oxide
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide

Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (d)

2021

1. Statement 1:

The United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF) and the Arbor Day Foundation have recently recognized Hyderabad as 2020 Tree City of the World

Statement 2:

Hyderabad was selected for recognition for a year following its commitment to grow and maintain the Urban forests.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct and Statement 2 is the correct explanation for Statement 1

(b) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct but Statement 2 is not the correct explanation for Statement 1.

(c) Statement 1 is correct but Statement 2 is not correct.

(d) Statement 1 is not correct but Statement 2 is correct.

Answer: (d) 

2. In the context of India’s preparation for Climate-smart Agriculture, consider the following statements:
3. The ‘Climate-Smart village’ approach in India is a part of a project led by climate change, Agriculture and food security (CCAFS), an international research programme.
4. The project of CCAFS is carried out under Consultative Group on International Agricultural Research (CGIAR) headquartered in France.
5. The International Crops Research Institute for the Semi-Arid Tropics (ICRISAT) in India is one of the CGIAR’S research centers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

3. Consider the following kinds of organisms:
4. Copepods
5. Cyanobacteria
6. Diatoms
7. Foraminifera

Which of the above are primary producers in the food chains of oceans?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

Answer: (b)

4. Consider the following animals
5. Hedgehog
6. Marmot
7. Pangolin

To reduce the chance of being captured by predators, which of the above organisms rolls up/roll up and protects/protect its/their vulnerable parts?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (d) 

5. With reference to the ‘’New York Declaration on Forests’’, which of the following statements are correct?
6. It was first endorsed at the United Nations Climate Summit in 2014
7. It endorses a global timeline to end the loss of forests
8. It is a legally binding international declaration
9. It is endorsed by governments, big companies and indigenous communities.
10. India was one of the signatories at its inception

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 5

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 2 and 5

Answer: (d) 

6. Magnetite particles, suspected to cause neurodegenerative problems are generated as environmental pollutants from which of the following?
7. Brakes of motor vehicles
8. Engines of motor vehicles
9. Microwave stoves within homes
10. Power plants
11. Telephone lines

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (b)

7. Which one of the following is a filter feeder?

(a) Catfish

(b) Octopus

(c) Oyster

(d) Pelican

Answer: (b)

8. In the case of which of the following biogeochemical cycles, the weathering of rocks is the main source of release of nutrients to enter the cycle?

(a) Carbon cycle

(b) Nitrogen cycle

(c) Phosphorus cycle

(d) Sulphur cycle

Answer: (c)

9. Which of the following are detritivores?
10. Earthworms
11. Jellyfish
12. Seahorse
13. Woodlice

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (c) 

10. The “Common Carbon Metric” supported by UNEP, has been developed for

(a) Assessing the carbon footprint of building operations around the world

(b) Enabling commercial farming entities around the world to enter carbon emission trading

(c) Enabling governments to assess the overall carbon footprint caused by their countries

(d) Assessing the overall carbon foot-print caused by the use of fossil fuels by the world in a unit time

Answer: (a) 

11. Which of the following have species that can establish a symbiotic relationship with other organisms?
12. Cnidarians
13. Fungi
14. Protozoa

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

12. “R2 Code of Practices” constitute a tool available for promoting the adoption of

(a) Environmentally responsible practices in the electronics recycling industry

(b) Ecological management of ‘’Wetlands of International Importance” under the Ramsar Convention

(c) Sustainable practices in the cultivation of agricultural crops in degraded lands

(d) ‘’Environmental Impact Assessment’’ in the exploitation of natural resources

Answer: (a) 

13. Why is there a concern about copper smelting plants?
14. They may release lethal quantities of carbon monoxide into the environment
15. The copper slag can cause the leaching of some heavy metals into the environment
16. They may release sulphur dioxide as a pollutant

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

14. With reference to furnace oil, consider the following statements:
15. It is a product of oil refineries
16. Some industries use it to generate power
17. Its use causes sulphur emissions into the environment

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

15. What is blue carbon?

(a) Carbon captured by oceans and coastal ecosystems

(b) Carbon sequestered in forest biomass and agricultural soils

(c) Carbon contained in petroleum and natural gas

(d) Carbon present in the atmosphere

Answer: (a) 

16. In nature, which of the following is/are most likely to be found surviving on a surface without soil?
17. Fern
18. Lichen
19. Moss
20. Mushroom

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 4 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) 

2020

1. In the context of recent advances in human reproductive technology, “Pronuclear

Transfer” is used for

(a) fertilization of egg in vitro by the donor sperm

(b) genetic modification of sperm-producing cells

(c) development of stem cells into functional embryos

(d) prevention of mitochondrial diseases in offspring

Answer: (d) 

2. With reference to carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements:

1. They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body.
2. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body.
3. They can be used in biochemical sensors.
4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 

3. Consider the following activities:

1. Spraying pesticides on a crop field
2. Inspecting the craters of active volcanoes
3. Collecting breath samples from spouting whales for DNA analysis

At the present level of technology, which of the above activities can be successfully

carried out by using drones?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

4. Consider the following statements:

1. Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent.
2. A person’s genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage.
3. Human-induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

5. Which of the following statements are correct regarding the general difference between plant and animal cells?

1. Plant cells have cellulose cell walls whilst animal cells do not
2. Plant cells do not have plasma membrane unlike animal cells which do
3. Mature plant cell has one large vacuole vacuoles

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 

6. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution?

1. Automobile exhaust
2. Tobacco smoke
3. Wood burning
4. Using varnished wooden furniture
5. Using products made of polyurethane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (d) 

7. With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements:

1. The leader of an elephant group is a female
2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months
3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only
4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 4 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (a) 

8. Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin?

1. Nagarhole National Park
2. Papikonda National Park
3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c) 

9. With reference to India’s biodiversity, Ceylon Frogmouth, Coppersmith Barbet, Gray Chinned Minivet and White-throated Redstart are

(a) Birds

(b) Primates

(c) Reptiles

(d) Amphibians

Answer: (a)

10. Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous?

(a) Kanha National Park

(b) Manas National Park

(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary

(d) Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary

Answer: (a) 

11. Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat?

1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary
2. Gangotri National Park
3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary
4. Manas National Park

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Answer: (a) 

12. In rural road construction, the use of which of the following is preferred for ensuring environmental sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint?

1. Copper slag
2. Cold mix asphalt technology
3. Geotextiles
4. Hot mix asphalt technology
5. Portland cement

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 4 and 5 only

(d) 1 and 5 only

Answer: (a) 

13. Steel slag can be the material for which of the following?

1. Construction of base road
2. Improvement of agricultural soil
3. Production of cement

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

14. Consider the following statements:

1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury.
2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment.
3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

15. What is the use of biochar in farming?

1. ‘Biochar can be used as a part of the growing medium in vertical farming.
2. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it promotes the growth of nitrogen fixing microorganisms.
3. When biochar is a part of the growing- medium, it enables the growing medium to retain water for a longer time.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

16. If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of The Wildlife Protection Act,

1972, what is the implication?

(a) A license is required to cultivate that plant

(b) Such a plant cannot be cultivated under any circumstances

(c) It is a Genetically Modified crop plant

(d) Such a plant is invasive and harmful to the ecosystem

Answer: (a) 

17. What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero tillage in agriculture?

1. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of the previous crop
2. Without the need for the nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible.
3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

18. According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels?

1. Cassava
2. Damaged wheat grains
3. Groundnut seeds
4. Horse gram
5. Rotten potatoes
6. Sugar beet

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only

(b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only

(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Answer: (a) 

19. Which one of the following statements best describes the term ‘Social Cost of Carbon’? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the

(a) long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2, emissions in a given year

(b) requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels

(c) efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place

(d) contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth

Answer: (a) 

20. In the context of India, which of the following is/are considered to be of practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture?

1. Crop diversification
2. Legume intensification
3. Tensiometer use
4. Vertical farming

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d)

21. Consider the following minerals:

1. Bentonite
2. Chromite
3. Kyanite
4. Sillimanite

In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (d) 

22. With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C isotherm which is 129 meters in the southwestern Indian Ocean during January — March.
2. OMT collected during January — March can be used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 

23. With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are

correct?

1. It is spread over two districts.
2. There is no human habitation inside the Park.
3. It is one of the natural habitats of the Great Indian Bustard.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

24. Consider the following statements:

1. 36% of India’s districts are classified as “overexploited” or “critical” by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).
2. CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act.
3. India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (b)

25. Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat”?

(a) Corbett

(b) Ranthambore

(c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam

(d) Sunderbans

Answer: (c) Nagarjunsagar-Srisailam

2019 

 

1. Which one of the following groups of plants were domesticated in the ‘New World’ and introduced into the ‘Old World’?

(a) Tobacco, cocoa and rubber

(b) Tobacco, cotton and rubber

(c) Cotton, coffee and sugarcane

(d) Rubber, coffee and wheat

Answer: (a) 

2. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?

(a) Manas National Park

(b) Namdapha National Park

(c) Neora Valley National Park

(d) Valley of Flowers National Park

Answer: (d) 

3. Consider the following statements:

1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

4. In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into the stratosphere?

(a) Creating artificial rains in some regions

(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones

(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth

(d) Reducing the global warming

Answer: (d)

5. Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?

(a) Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife sanctuaries; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve

(b) Mudumalai, Sathyamangalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park

(c) Kaundinya, Gundla Brahmeswaram and Papikonda Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Mukurthi National Park

(d) Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and NagarjunasagarSrisailam Tiger Reserve

Answer: (a) 

6. Consider the following statements:

1. Some species of turtles are herbivores
2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores
4. Some species of snakes are viviparous

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d)

7. Why is there a great concern about the ‘microbeads’ that are released into the environment?

(a) They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems

(b) They are considered to cause skin cancer in children.

(c) They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.

(d) They are often found to be used as food adulterants.

Answer: (a) 

8. For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?

1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location
2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location
3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

9. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of ‘methane hydrate’?

1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits
2. Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor
3. Methane in the atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c)1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

10. Consider the following:

1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide

Which of the above are released into the atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 

11. In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as

(a) pesticides in agriculture

(b) preservatives in processed foods

(c) fruit-ripening agents

(d) moisturizing agents in cosmetics

Answer: (a) 

12. Consider the following statements:

1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 

13. Consider the following statements:

1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into the environment
2. Cattle release ammonia into the environment
3. The poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment

 

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

14. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?

(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.

(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation

(c) The Earth’s surface would have a low temperature on cloudy nights

(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level

Answer: (b)

15. Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

16. The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to

(a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs

(b) an early human species

(c) a cave system found in North-East India

(d) a geological period in the history of the Indian subcontinent

Answer: (b) 

17. Consider the following statements:

The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to

1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought
2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources

Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Answer: (c) 

18. Consider the following statements:

1. As per the recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 

19. Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of [Based on Current Affairs 2018-19]

(a) anti-malarial drug

(b) biodiesel

(c) pulp for the paper industry

(d) textile fibre

Answer: (d) 

Q 20. In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel [Based on Current Affairs 2018-19]

buses in public transport, consider the following statements:

1. The main advantage of the use of HCNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions
2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 

2018 

1. Which one of the following is an artificial lake?

(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)

(b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)

(c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)

(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)

Answer: (a) 

2. Which of the following is/are the possible consequences of heavy and mining in riverbeds?

1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water table

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

3. The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at

(a) The Earth Summit on Sustainable Development 2002, Johannesburg

(b) The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development 2012, Rio de Janeiro

(c) The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change 2015, Paris

(d) The World Sustainable Development Summit 2016, New Delhi

Answer: (b)

4. Why is a plant called Prosopis Juliflora often mentioned in the news?

(a) Its extract is widely used in cosmetics

(b) It tends to reduce the biodiversity in the area in which it grow

(c) Its extract is used in the synthesis of pesticides

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)

5. Consider the following statements:

1. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide
3. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 

6. In which one of the following states is Pakhui wildlife sanctuary located?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Manipur

(c) Meghalaya

(d) Nagaland

Answer: (a) 

7. Consider the following statements?

1. The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the forest rights act 2006
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given habitat rights
3. Union Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 

8. Consider the following

1. Birds
2. Dust blowing
3. Rain
4. Wind blowing

Which of the above spread plant diseases?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 

9. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?

1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by an executive order of the government
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. a) 1 only
2. b) 2 only
3. c) Both 1 and 2
4. d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 

10. With reference to the ‘Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture’ (GACSA) which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. GACSA is an outcome of the climate summit held in Paris in 2015
2. Membership of GACSA does not create any binding obligations
3. India was instrumental in the creation of GACSA

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

11. “Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now” is an initiative launched by [Based on Current Affairs 2017-18]

(a) The Intergovernmental Panel on climate change

(b) The UNEP Secretariat

(c) The UNFCCC Secretariat

(d) The World Meteorological Organization

Answer: (c) 

2017 

1. Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC):

1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

 

2. In the context of solving pollution problems, which is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation techniques?

1. It is a technique of cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature
2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer: (c) 

3. Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of a species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequences/consequences?

1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected
2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infection of some cultivated plants
3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

4. Is it possible to produce algae based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry?

1. Production of algae based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents
2. Setting up and engineering the algae based biofuel production requires high level of expertise/ technology until the construction is completed
3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of a large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

5. In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration?

1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formalities

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

6. Consider the following statements:

1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue
2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible

Which of the given statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) 

7. According to the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?

1. Gharial
2. Indian wild ass
3. Wild Buffalo

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

8. With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an initiative of the European Union
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development budgets
3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD)

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 

9. With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all
2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only
3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation

Select the correct answer from the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 only

Answer: (b) 

 

10. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criteria for

(a) Measuring oxygen level in blood

(b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems

(c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystem

(d) Assessing oxygen levels in high altitude regions

Answer: (c) 

11. Consider the following statements:

1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to reduce Short Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of G20 group of countries
2. The CCAC focusses on methane, black carbon and hydrochlorofluorocarbons

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 

12. If you want to see gharials in their natural best habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit?

(a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves

(b) Chambal River

(c) Pulicat Lake

(d) Deepor Beel

Answer: (b)

13. The term M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in news in the context of

(a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna

(b) Maintenance of Tiger Reservoirs

(c) Indegenous Satellite Navigation System

(d) Security of National Highways

Answer: (b) 

14. In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply?

(a) It enjoys the same level of protection as tiger

(b) It no longer exists in the wild, a few individuals are under captive protection; and now it is impossible to prevent its extinction

(c) It is endemic to a particular region of India

(d) Both (b) and (c) stated above are correct in this context

Answer: (a) 

15. Recently, there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? [Based on Current Affairs 2016-2017]

(a) Corbett National Park

(b) Kuno Palpur Wildlife Sanctuary

(c) Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary

(d) Sariska National Park

Answer: (b) 

2016

1. Which of the following best describes/ describe the aim of the ‘Green India Mission’ of the Government of India?

1. Incorporating environmental benefits and costs into the Union and State Budgets thereby implementing the `green accounting’
2. Launching the second green revolution to enhance agricultural output so as to ensure food security to one and all in the future
3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 

 

2. What is/are unique about ‘Kharai Camel’, a breed found in India?

1. It is capable of swimming up to three kilometers in seawater
2. It survives by grazing on mangroves
3. It lives in the wild and cannot be domesticated

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 

3. Recently, our scientists have discovered a new and distinct species of banana plant which attains a height of about 11 meters and has orange-coloured fruit pulp. In which part of India has it been discovered?

(a) Andaman Islands

(b) Anaimalai Forests

(c) Maikal Hills

(d) Tropical rain forests of northeast

Answer: (a) 

4. With reference to an initiative called ‘The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and World Economic Forum
2. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing attention to the economic benefits of biodiversity
3. It presents an approach that can help decision-makers recognize, demonstrate and capture the value of ecosystems and biodiversity

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 

5. With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India
2. It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rainforest areas of South India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 

6. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Proper design and effective implementation of UN-REDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to

1. protection of biodiversity
2. resilience of forest ecosystems
3. poverty reduction

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

7. With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is a global action plan for sustainable development
2. It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 

8. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Viruses can infect

1. bacteria
2. fungi
3. plants

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

9. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gasses are normally considered in calculating the value of the Air Quality Index?

1. Carbon dioxide
2. Carbon monoxide
3. Nitrogen dioxide
4. Sulfur dioxide
5. Methane

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (b) 

10. Consider the following statements:

1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the ‘Club of Rome’
2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

11. In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the `Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat?

(a) Sand deserts of northwest India

(b) Higher Himalayas of Jammu and Kashmir

(c) Salt marshes of western Gujarat

(d) Western Ghats

Answer: (d)

12. Recently, for the first time in our country, which of the following States has declared a particular butterfly as ‘State Butterfly’? [Based on Current Affairs 2015-16]

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Himachal Pradesh

(c) Karnataka

(d) Maharashtra

Answer: (d) 

2015 

1. Which one of the following National Parks has a climate that varies from tropical to subtropical, temperate and arctic?

(a) Khangchendzonga National park

(b) Nandadevi National Park

(c) Neora Valley National Park

(d) Namdapha National park

Answer: (d) 

2. ‘BioCarbon Fund Initiative for Sustainable Forest Landscapes’ is managed by the

(a) Asian Development Bank

(b) International Monetary Fund

(c) United Nations Environment Programme

(d) World Bank

Answer: (d) 

3. Consider the following statements

1. The winds which blow between 30 degrees N and 60 degrees S latitudes throughout the year are known as westerlies
2. The moist air masses that cause winter rams in North-Western region of India are part of westerlies

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 

4. With reference to ‘Forest Carbon Partnership Facility’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is global partnership of governments, businesses, civil society and indigenous peoples
2. It provides financial aid to universities, individual scientists and institutions involved in scientific forestry research to develop eco-friendly and climate adaptation technologies for sustainable forest management
3. It assists the countries in their ‘REDD+ (Reducing Emission from Deforestation and Forest Degradation)’ efforts by providing them with financial and technical assistance

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 

5. With reference to an organization known as ‘Birdlife International’ which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a Global Partnership of Conservation Organizations
2. The concept of ‘biodiversity hotspots’ originated from this organization
3. It identifies the sites known/referred to as ‘Important Bird and Biodiversity Areas’
4. Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

6. Which one of the following is the best description of the term “ecosystem”?

(a) A community of organisms interacting with one another

(b) That part of the Earth which is inhabited by living organisms

(c) A community of organisms together with the environment in which they live

(d) The flora and fauna of a geographical area

Answer (c) 

7. Which of the following National Parks is unique in being a swamp with floating vegetation that supports a rich biodiversity?

(a) Bhitarkanika National Park

(b) Keibul Lamjao National Park

(c) Keoladeo Ghana National park

(d) Sultanpur National park

Answer: (b) 

8. With reference to the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) and the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. IUCN is an organ of the United Nations and CITES is an international agreement between governments
2. IUCN runs thousands of field projects around the world to better manage natural environments
3. CITES is legally binding on the States that have joined it, but this Convention does not take the place of national laws

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 

9. With reference to ‘dugong’, a mammal found in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a herbivorous marine animal
2. It is found along the entire coast of India
3. It is given legal protection under Schedule 1 of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. a) 1 and 2
2. b) 2 only
3. c) 1 and 3
4. d) 3 only

Answer: (c) 

10. Which one of the following is the national aquatic animal of India?

(a)Saltwater crocodile

(b) Olive ridley turtle

(c) Gangetic dolphin

(d) Gharial

Answer: (c) 

11. What is the Rio+20 Conference, often mentioned in the news?

(a) It is the United nations Conference on Sustainable Development

(b) It is a Ministerial Meeting of the World Trade Organization

(c)It is a Conference of the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change

(d) It is a Conference of the Member Countries of the Convention on Biological Diversity

Answer: (a) 

12. The term ‘Goldilocks Zone’ is often seen in the news in the context of

(a) the limits of habitable zone above the surface of the Earth

(b) regions inside the Earth-like planets in outer space

(c) search for the Earth-like planets in outer space

(d) search for meteorites containing precious metals

Answer: (c) 

13. Which of the following statements regarding ‘Green Climate Fund’ is/are correct?

1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change
2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECD, Asian Development Bank and World Bank

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)