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UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year’s Questions of Geography with Solutions (2015-2022)

Group "A" officers are appointed under various services by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), which serves as the primary recruiting organization.

UPSC CSE Prelims Previous Year’s Questions of Geography with Solutions (2015-2022)

Group "A" officers are appointed under various services by the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC), which serves as the primary recruiting organization.

The competitive examination comprises two successive stages :

• Civil Services (Preliminary) Examination (Objective Type) for the selection of candidates for the Main Examination; and
• Civil Services (Main) Examination (Written and Interview) for selecting candidates for the various Services and posts.

The General Studies Paper-I and General Studies Paper-II (CSAT) are objective (MCQ-based) papers that are part of the UPSC Preliminary Examination, which is the first phase of the exam. Paper II is qualifying and requires a minimum score of 33%. Two points are given for each correct response in Paper I; for each incorrect response, one-third of a point, or 0.66 points, are taken away. In contrast, Paper II gives 2.5 marks for each correct response and subtracts 0.83 points (or 0.83 marks) for each incorrect response. Both papers are administered on the same day, and each paper lasts for two hours.

The Preliminary Examination is only intended to be a screening test, so it is essential to keep in mind that a candidate's marks will not be considered when determining their final rank or level of service.

The likelihood of passing this stage is significantly skewed because there are roughly twelve to thirteen times as many candidates who qualify for the Main Examination as open positions are to be filled annually. To be admitted to the Main Examination for that year, a candidate must be officially declared qualified in the Preliminary Examination. Below are the previous years' cutoff scores for the General category.

 

UPSC Prelims Cut-off Marks over the Years (2015-2022)

 

Year	Cut-off Marks for General category	Percentage
2015	107.34/200	53.67%
2016	116/200	58%
2017	105.34/200	52.67%
2018	98/200	49%
2019	98/200	49%
2020	92.51/200	46.61%
2021	87.54/200	43.77%
2022	95/200 (expected)	47.5%

 

The objective-type assessment format is followed during the preliminary exam. It includes questions from many subject areas, including history, geography, politics, economics, etc.  

The following list contains the syllabus for the Paper I of the preliminary examination. 

Indian Geography 

• Basics of India - Location, latitude, longitude, time zone, Neighbours, Important straits, States and their position, and States with international boundaries

• Physical features - 

 

The Himalayas – geological formation, climate, vegetation, soil, biodiversity, physiographic divisions, major passes, significance, 

1. The Great North Indian Plains – geological formation, physiographic divisions, climate, vegetation, soil, biodiversity, significance
2. Peninsular Plateau – geological formation, Central Highlands, Deccan Plateau, Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats
3. Indian Desert
4. Coastal plains and islands

 

• River systems - Himalayan rivers, Peninsular rivers, River basins, Regional development and planning, and Hydropower projects, major dams. 

• Climate - Monsoons – driving mechanism, El Nino, La Nina, Seasons, and Cyclones. 

• Minerals and industries – mineral distribution, industrial policies, location

• Agriculture - Land utilization, Types of agricultural practices, Green revolution, Soils and crops, Irrigation, Land reforms. 

• Natural vegetation and fauna - Classification of natural vegetation, Rainfall distribution in India, Biosphere reserves, national parks, etc.

• Economic infrastructure - Transportation (highways, inland waterways, etc.), Power and energy sector, Conventional and non-conventional sources of energy, and Energy conservation. 

• Human Geography -  Demographics and Recent census

 

World Geography - Major natural regions, Regional geography of developed countries, 

Regional geography of developing countries, and Regional geography of South Asia

Physical Geography 

 

• Geomorphology - Origin of the earth, Interior of the earth, Types and characteristics of rocks, Folding and Faulting, Volcanoes, earthquakes, Interior of the earth, and Landforms formed by fluvial, aeolian, and glacial actions. 

• Climatology

 

1. Atmosphere – structure and composition
2. Temperature
3. Pressure belts of the Earth
4. Wind systems
5. Clouds and types of rainfall
6. Cyclones and anti-cyclones
7. Major climatic types

 

• Oceanography - Ocean relief, Temperature, salinity, Ocean deposits, Ocean currents, El Nino and La Nina. 

• Biogeography - Soil – origin and types, Major biomes of the world, Ecosystem, food chain, Environmental degradation, and conservation. 

 

    Human Geography

1. Man & environment; relationship, growth, and development of human geography; determinism and possibilism
2. Population, tribes, migration
3. Economic activities – agriculture, manufacturing, industries, tertiary activities
4. Settlements, Urbanisation, functional classification of towns, million-cities, and megacities

It is imperative to succeed on the test to thoroughly prepare for each subject or topic listed on the syllabus. To understand the range of questions asked and predict the questions that might be asked the following year, it is essential to complete questions from previous years when preparing for Paper-I.

Many of the questions come from the geography section of the syllabus. The geography questions have been compiled below after carefully examining the UPSC papers from 2015 through 2022.

TRENDS AND STRATEGY OF GEOGRAPHY: 

Most questions about geography are typically found in the sections on physical features, Demographics and recent census, atmosphere – structure and composition, and Natural vegetation and fauna. 

Consult the NCERTs for a thorough understanding of the discipline's core concepts. Everyone should also understand the nation's current economic problems. To supplement the knowledge acquired from NCERTs, current events should be kept up to date, and regular newspaper reading should be done. Readers can also consult publications like the Hindu, the Explained section of the Indian Express, and articles from websites like The Mint and the Hindu Business Line to understand recent geographic news.  

 

YEAR-WISE QUESTIONS (2022-2017)

2022

1.Consider the following pairs: 

Region often mentioned in the news: Country

1. Anatolia                                  Turkey
2. Amhara                                   Ethiopia
3. Cabo Delgado                        Spain
4. Catalonia                                 Italy

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

Answer: (b) 

2. Which one of the lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?

1. Lake Victoria
2. Lake Faguibine
3. Lake Oguta
4. Lake Volta

Answer: 2

3. Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?

(a) Cauvery

(b) Manjira

(c) Pennar

(d) Tungabhadra

Answer: (c) 

4. Consider the following pairs:

          Peak                                              Mountains

1. Namcha Barwa                     Garhwal Himalaya
2. Nanda Devi                            Kumaon Himalaya
3. Nokrek                                    Sikkim Himalaya

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 

5. The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions?

(a) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores

(b) Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco

(c) Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa

(d) The entire coastal Mediterranean Sea of areas

Answer: (a) 

6. Consider the following countries:

1. Azerbaijan
2. Kyrgyzstan
3. Tajikistan
4. Uzbekistan
5. Turkmenistan

Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (c) 

7. With reference to India, consider the following statements:

1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.
2. Monazite contains thorium.
3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 

8. In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the:

(a) First half of the month of June

(b) Second half of the month of June

(c) First half of the month of July

(d) Second half of the month of July

Answer: (b) 

9. Consider the following States:

1. Andhra Pradesh
2. Kerala
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Tripura

How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States?

(a) Only one State

(b) Only two States

(C) Only three States

(d) All four States

Answer: (d) 

10. Consider the following pairs:

          Reservoirs        :     States

1. Ghataprabha   :     Telangana
2. Gandhi Sagar  :     Madhya Pradesh
3. Indira Sagar    :     Andhra Pradesh
4. Maithon           :     Chhattisgarh

How many pairs given above are not correctly matched?

(a) Only one pair

(b) Only two pairs PAY

(c) Only three pairs

(d) All four pairs

Answer: (c) 

11. With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 4

Answer: (d) 

12. Consider the following statements:

1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) 

13.“System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practiced, results in:

1. Reduced seed requirement
2. Reduced methane production
3. Reduced electricity consumption

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

 Answer: (d) 

2021

1. The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one or more or a combination of some conditions.

Which of the following are such conditions?

1. Burrowing animals and termites.
2. Fire
3. Grazing herbivores
4. Seasonal rainfall
5. Soil properties

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 4 and 5

(c) 2, 3 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 5

Answer: (c) 

2. With reference to the water on the planet Earth, consider the following statements:
3. The amount of water in the rivers and lakes is more than the amount of groundwater.
4. The amount of water In polar ice caps and glaciers is more than the amount of groundwater.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

3. Consider the following statements:
4. Moringa (drumstick tree) is a leguminous evergreen tree.
5. Tamarind tree is endemic to south Asia.
6. In India, most of the tamarind is collected as minor forest produce.
7. India exports tamarind and seeds of moringa.
8. Seeds of moringa and tamarind can be used in the production of biofuels.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5

(b) 3, 4 and 5

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 1,2, 3 and 5

Answer: (b) 

4. The black cotton soil of India has been formed due to the weathering of

(a) Brown forest soil

(b) Fissure volcanic rock

(c) Granite and schist

(d) Shale and limestone

Answer: (b) 

5. How is permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farming?
6. Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practices but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture practices are predominant.
7. Conventional chemical farming can cause an increase in soil salinity but the occurrence of such phenomenon is not observed in permaculture farming.
8. Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in such regions.
9. Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming but not necessarily so in conventional chemical farming.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 4 only

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: 1. 

 

6. With reference to ‘palm oil’, consider the following statements:

(a) The palm oil tree is native to Southeast Asia.

(b) The palm oil is a raw material for some industries producing lipstick and perfumes.

(c) The palm oil can be used to produce biodiesel.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 

7. With reference to the Indus River system, of the following four rivers, three of them pour into one of them which joins the Indus directly. Among the following, which one is such a river that joins the Indus directly?

(a) Chenab

(b) Jhelum

(c) Ravi

(d) Sutlej

Answer: (d) 

8. With references to India, Didwana, Kuchaman, Sargol and khatu are the names of

(a) Glaciers

(b) Mangrove areas

(c) Ramsar sites

(d) Saline lakes

Answer: (d) 

9. Consider the following Rivers:
10. Brahmani
11. Nagavali
12. Subarnarekha
13. Vamsadhara

Which of the above rise from the Eastern Ghats?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 3 and 4

(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (b) 

10. Among the following, which one is the least water-efficient crop?

(a) Sugarcane

(b) Sunflower

(c) Pearl millet

(d) Red gram

Answer: (a) 

11. Consider the following statements:
12. In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds.
13. In the temperate Zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 and 2

Answer: (c) 

12. “Leaf litter decomposes faster than in any other biome and as a result, the soil surface is often almost bare. Apart from trees, the vegetation is largely composed of plant forms that reach up into the canopy vicariously, by climbing the trees or growing as epiphytes, rooted on the upper branches of trees.” This is the most likely description of

(a) Coniferous forest

(b) Dry deciduous forest

(c) Mangrove forest

(d) Tropical rainforest

Answer: (d) 

2020 

1. Consider the following pairs:

Rivers	Flows into
1. Mekong	Andaman Sea
2. Thames	Irish Sea
3. Volga	Caspian Sea
4. Zambezi	Indian Ocean

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 

2. Steel slag can be the material for which of the following?

1. Construction of base road
2. Improvement of agricultural soil
3. Production of cement

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

3. Consider the following statements:

1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury.
2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment.
3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

4. What is the use of biochar in farming?

1. ‘Biochar can be used as a part of the growing medium in vertical farming.
2. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it promotes the growth of nitrogen fixing microorganisms.
3. When biochar is a part of the growing- medium, it enables the growing medium to retain water for a longer time.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

5. What is/are the advantages/advantages of zero tillage in agriculture?

1. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of the previous crop.
2. Without the need for a nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible.
3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

6. According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels?

1. Cassava
2. Damaged wheat grains
3. Groundnut seeds
4. Horse gram
5. Rotten potatoes
6. Sugar beet

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2, 5 and 6 only

(b) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only

(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Answer: (d) 

7. With reference to pulse production in India, consider the following statements:

1. Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and rabi crops.
2. Green-gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse production.
3. In the last three decades, while the production of kharif pulses has increased, the production of rabi pulses has decreased.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 

8. “The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard frost is injurious to it. It requires at least 210 frost free days and 50 to 100 centimeters of rainfall for its growth. A light well-drained soil capable of retaining moisture is ideally suited for the cultivation of the crop.” Which one of the following is that crop?

(a) Cotton

(b) Jute

(c) Sugarcane

(d) Tea

Answer: (a) 

9. With reference to the current trends in the cultivation of sugarcane in India, consider the following statements:

1. A substantial saving in seed material is made when ‘bud chip settings’ are raised in a nursery and transplanted in the main field.
2. When direct planting of setts is done, the germination percentage is better with single budded setts as compared to setts with many buds.
3. If bad weather conditions prevail when setts are directly planted, single-budded setts have better survival as compared to large setts.
4. Sugarcane can be cultivated using settings prepared from tissue culture.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 

10. With reference to solar water pumps, consider the following statements:

1. Solar power can be used for running surface pumps and not for submersible Pumps.
2. Solar power can be used for running centrifugal pumps and not the ones with piston.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (d) 

11. In the context of India, which of the following is/are considered to be of practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture?

1. Crop diversification
2. Legume intensification
3. Tensiometer use
4. Vertical farming

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d) 

12. What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture?

1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible.
2. Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers is possible.
3. Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible.
4. Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 

13. Consider the following minerals:

1. Bentonite
2. Chromite
3. Kyanite
4. Sillimanite

In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (d) 

14. With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C isotherm which is 129 meters in the southwestern Indian Ocean during January — March.
2. OMT collected during January — March can be used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in the monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 

15. With reference to chemical fertilizers in India, consider the following statements:

1. At present, the retail price of chemical fertilizers is market-driven and not administered by the Government.
2. Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced from natural gas.
3. Sulphur, which is a raw material for Phosphoric acid fertilizer, is a by-product of oil refineries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 

16. Siachen Glacier is situated to the

(a) East of Aksai Chin

(b) East of Leh

(c) North of Gilgit

(d) North of Nubra Valley

Answer: (d) 

17. Consider the following statements:

1. Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only.
2. Only some cyclones develop an eye.
3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C lesser than that of the surroundings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (c)

2019 

1. With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:

1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.
2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 

2. Consider the following pairs:

Glacier	River
Bandarpunch	Yamuna
Bara Shigri	Chenab
Milam	Mandakini
Siachen	Nubra
Zemu	Manas

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 5

(d) 3 and 5

Answer: (a)

3. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:

1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a)

4. Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?

(a) China

(b) India

(c) Myanmar

(d) Vietnam

Answer: (b)

5. The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to-

(a) fossils of a kind of dinosaurs

(b) an early human species

(c) a cave system found in North-East India.

(d) a geological period in the history of the Indian subcontinent

Answer: (b) 

6. Consider the following pairs:

Sea	Bordering country
Adriatic Sea	Albania
Black Sea	Croatia
Caspian Sea	Kazakhstan
Mediterranean Sea	Morocco
Red Sea	Syria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (b) 

7. Consider the following statements:

1. Asiatic lions are naturally found in India only.
2. A double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 

8. Consider the following States:

1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha

With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of the State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?

(a) 2-3-1-4

(b) 2-3-4-1

(c) 3-2-4-1

(d) 3-2-1-4

Answer: (c) 

9. Consider the following pairs:

Famous place	River
Pandharpur	Chandrabhaga
Tiruchirappalli	Cauvery
Hampi	Malaprabha

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 

10. Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?

(a) Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.

(b) Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.

(c) The Earth’s surface would have a low temperature on cloudy nights.

(d) Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.

Answer: (b) 

11. Consider the following pairs:

Wildlife	Naturally found in
Blue-finned Mahseer	Cauvery River
Irrawaddy Dolphin	Chambal River
Rusty-spotted Cat	Eastern Ghats

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 

12. What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?

(a) Recently discovered uranium deposits

(b) Tropical rain forests

(c) Underground cave systems

(d) Water reservoirs

Answer: (d) 

13. On 21st June, the Sun

(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle

(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle

(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator

(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn

Answer: (a) 

14. Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?

(a) Manas National Park

(b) Namdapha National Park

(c) Neora Valley National Park

(d) Valley of Flowers National Park

Answer: (d) 

2018 

1. Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?

1. Hard and waxy leaves
2. Tiny leaves
3. Thorns instead of leaves

Select the correct answer using the code given below

(a) 2 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

2. Consider the following pairs:

Town sometime mentioned in news	Country
Aleppo	Syria
Kirkuk	Yemen
Mosul	Palestine
Mazar-i-Sharif	Afghanistan

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 

3. With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements:

1. GM mustard has the genes of a soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
2. GM mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d)1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 

4. In which one of the following States is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located?

(a) Arunachal Pradesh

(b) Manipur

(c) Meghalaya

(d) Nagaland

Answer: (a)

5. Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?

1. Aral Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 2 only

(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (a) 

6. Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi?

(a) Bengaluru

(b) Hyderabad

(c) Nagpur

(d) Pune

Answer: (a) 

7. The Earth’s magnetic field has reversed every few hundred thousand years.

1. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
2. When living organisms originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 

8. With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of “Conservation Agriculture” assumes significance. Which of the following fall under Conservation Agriculture?

1. Avoiding the monoculture practices
2. Adopting minimum tillage
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops
4. Using crop residues to cover the soil surface
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(c) 2, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

Answer: (c) 

9. Consider the following pairs:

Regions sometimes mentioned in news	Country
Catalonia	Spain
Crimea	Hungary
Mindanao	philippines
Oromia	Nigeria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b)) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 

10. Which one of the following is an artificial lake?

(a) Kodaikanal (Tamil Nadu)

(b) Kolleru (Andhra Pradesh)

(c) Nainital (Uttarakhand)

(d) Renuka (Himachal Pradesh)

Answer: (a) 

11. Consider the following statements

1. Most of the world’s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
2. More than one-third of the world’s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and the Philippines.
3. Coral reefs host far more animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

12. Which of the following is/are the possible consequence/s of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?

1. Decreased salinity in the river
2. Pollution of groundwater
3. Lowering of the water table

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer: (b) 

13. Consider the following statements:

1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in Indian territory.
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 3 only

(d) 1 and 3

Answer: (a) 

14. With reference to agricultural soils, consider the following statements:

1. High content of organic matter in soil drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
2. Soil does not play any role in the sulphur cycle.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

2017 

1. The Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?

1. Jordan
2. Iraq
3. Lebanon
4. Syria

Select the correct answer

using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 

2. Consider the following statements:

1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five states only.
2. Western Ghats are spread over five states only.
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (b) 

3. With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. The IOD phenomenon is characterized by a difference in sea surface temperature between the tropical Western Indian Ocean and the tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
2. An IOD phenomenon can influence an El Nino’s impact on the monsoon.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 

4. Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar?

(a) Sumatra

(b) Borneo

(c) Java

(d) Sri Lanka

Answer: (a) 

5. With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:

1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim.
2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and is a tributary of river Teesta.
3. River Teesta flows into the Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 

6. If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination?

(a) 6

(b) 7

(c) 8

(d) 9

Answer: (b)

7. From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats?

(a) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve

(b) Nallamala Forest

(c) Nagarhole National Park

(d) Seshachalam Biosphere Reserve

Answer: (a) 

8. At one of the place in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, ‘you will find that the sea water recedes from the shore line a few kilometers and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the seafloor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at

(a) Bhavnagar

(b) Bheemunipatnam

(c) Chandipur

(d) Nagapattinam

Answer: (c) 

2016

1. Consider the following pairs:

Famous Place	Region
Bodhgaya	Baghelkhand
Khajuraho	Bundelkhand
Shirdi	Vidarbha
Nasik (Nashik)	Malwa
tirupati	Rayalaseema

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(c) 2 and 5 only

(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (c)

2. Which of the following is/are tributary/ tributaries of Brahmaputra?

1. Dibang
2. Kameng
3. Lohit

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

3. In which of the following regions of India are shale gas resources found?

1. Cambay Basin
2. Cauvery Basin
3. Krishna-Godavari Basin

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

4. With reference to ‘Initiative for Nutritional Security through intensive Millets Promotion’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. This initiative aims to demonstrate the improved production and post-harvest technologies, and to demonstrate value addition techniques, in an integrated manner, with a cluster approach.
2. Poor, small, marginal and tribal farmers have a larger stake in this scheme.
3. An important objective of the scheme is to encourage farmers of commercial crops to shift to millet cultivation by offering them free kits of critical inputs of nutrients and micro-irrigation equipment.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

5. Recently, which of the following States has explored the possibility of constructing an artificial inland port to be connected to sea by a long navigational channel?

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Chhattisgarh

(c) Karnataka

(d) Rajasthan

Answer: (d) 

6. Recently, linking of which of the following rivers was undertaken?

(a) Cauvery and Tungabhadra

(b) Godavari and Krishna

(c) Mahanadi and Son

(d) Narmada and Tapti

Answer: (b) 

7. Consider the following pairs:

Community sometimes in the affairs of mentioned in the news

1. Kurd : Bangladesh
2. Madhesi : Nepal
3. Rohingya : Myanmar

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 only

Answer: (c) 

2015 

1. In the South Atlantic and South-Eastern Pacific regions in tropical latitudes, cyclones do not originate. What is the reason?

(a) Sea surface temperatures are low

(b) Inter-tropical Convergence Zone seldom occurs

(c) Coriolis force is too weak

(d) Absence of land in those regions

Answer: (b) 

2. Which one of the following pairs of States of India indicates the easternmost and westernmost State?

(a) Assam and Rajasthan

(b) Arunachal Pradesh and Rajasthan

(c) Assam and Gujarat

(d) Arunachal Pradesh and Gujarat

Answer: (d) 

3. What explains the eastward flow of the equatorial countercurrent?

(a) The Earth’s rotation on its axis

(b) Convergence of the two equatorial currents

(c) Difference in salinity of water

(d) Occurrence of the belt of calm near the equator

Answer: (a) 

4. Consider the following pairs:

Place of Pilgrimage	Location
Srisailam	Nallamala Hills
Omkareshwar	Satmala Hills
Pushkar	Mahadeo Hills

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 

5. Consider the following rivers:

1. Vamsadhara
2. Indravati
3. Pranahita
4. Pennar

Which of the above are tributaries of Godavari ?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2 and 3 only

Answer: (d) 

6. In India, the steel production industry requires the import of

(a) saltpetre

(b) rock phosphate

(c) coking coal

(d) All of the above

Answer: (c)

7. Consider the following statements:

1. The winds which blow between 30 N and 60 S latitudes throughout the year are known as westerlies.
2. The moist air masses that cause winter rains in the NorthWestern region of India are part of westerlies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b) 

8. In a particular region in India, the local people train the roots of living trees into robust bridges across the streams. As the time passes, these bridges become stronger. These unique ‘living root bridges’ are found in

(a) Meghalaya

(b) Himachal Pradesh

(c) Jharkhand

(d) Tamil Nadu

Answer: (a) 

9. Tides occur in the oceans and seas due to which among the following?

1. Gravitational force of the Sun
2. Gravitational force of the Moon
3. Centrifugal force of the Earth

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 

10. In which of the following activities are Indian Remote Sensing (IRS) satellites used?

1. Assessment of crop productivity
2. Locating groundwater resources
3. Mineral exploration
4. Telecommunications
5. Traffic studies

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 4 and 5 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (a) 

11. Consider the following States:

1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Himachal Pradesh
3. Mizoram

In which of the above States do ‘Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests’ occur?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

12. Which one of the following countries of South-West Asia does not open out to the Mediterranean Sea?

(a) Syria

(b) Jordan

(c) Lebanon

(d) Israel

Answer: (b) 

13. In India, in which one of the following types of forests is teak a dominant tree species?

(a) Tropical moist deciduous forest

(b) Tropical rainforest

(c) Tropical thorn scrub forest

(d) Temperate forest with grasslands

Answer: (a) 

14. “Each day is more or less the same, the morning is clear and bright with a sea breeze; as the Sun climbs high in the sky, heat mounts up, dark clouds form, then rain comes with thunder and lightning. But the rain is soon over.”

Which of the following regions is described in the above passage?

(a) Savannah

(b) Equatorial

(c) Monsoon

(d) Mediterranean

Answer: (b)